CCFP SAMP
Practice case-based management scenarios for the CCFP SAMP exam format with multiple-choice questions and answers, timed and tutor-mode exams, and detailed explanations.
Start your free 7-day trialWhat you get
- Timed and tutor-mode exams
- Choose all questions, only new ones, only previously-incorrect, or only flagged ones
- Pick exactly how many questions you want per exam
- Build a custom exam from any combination of topics
- Detailed explanations after every question
- Flag questions for review
- Performance dashboard — accuracy by topic, progress over time
- 7-day free trial, no credit card required
Loading topics…
About the CCFP SAMP exam
The computer-based written component of the CFPC Certification Examination in Family Medicine, assessing clinical management and decision-making through multiple-choice questions (MCQs) and short-menu questions (SMQs).
Eligibility: CFPC members who have completed an approved family medicine residency or meet eligibility requirements through an accepted combination of training and practice experience.
Free CCFP SAMP Sample Questions
Real CCFP SAMP practice questions and answers with explanations — no sign-up required.
Sample Question 1
A 59-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset severe tearing chest pain radiating to the back. He has a history of long-standing hypertension. Blood pressure is 190/110 mmHg in the right arm and 165/95 mmHg in the left arm. A new diastolic murmur is heard. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?
- Administer aspirin and arrange urgent coronary angiography
- Start intravenous beta-blocker to rapidly control heart rate and blood pressure(Correct answer)
- Give sublingual nitroglycerin and observe
- Send patient home with oral antihypertensives
- Treat with proton pump inhibitor for presumed GERD
Explanation
This presentation is highly suggestive of acute aortic dissection. The immediate priority is rapid reduction of shear stress on the aortic wall by controlling heart rate and blood pressure, most effectively with intravenous beta-blockade (e.g., esmolol). Imaging should follow hemodynamic stabilization.
Sample Question 2
A 72-year-old man presents to your clinic with progressive fatigue and dyspnea on exertion. He has a history of coronary artery disease and chronic kidney disease. His hemoglobin is 78 g/L and he appears pale with mild tachycardia.
Which factor MOST increases this patient’s risk of decompensation from anemia?
- Age over 70
- Presence of coronary artery disease(Correct answer)
- Male sex
- Chronic kidney disease alone
- Mild tachycardia
Explanation
Patients with underlying ischemic heart disease are at higher risk of decompensation from anemia and may require urgent transfusion.
Sample Question 3
Which traveler is most appropriate for the Japanese encephalitis vaccine?
- Intravenous normal saline hydration
- Hydrochlorothiazide
- Oral calcium carbonate
- NSAIDs
- Observation only(Correct answer)
Explanation
Hydration is the first-line treatment in severe symptomatic hypercalcemia to promote renal calcium excretion.
Sample Question 4
A 32-year-old man presents with jaundice, dark urine, and fatigue for 1 week. He recently recovered from a respiratory tract infection. On exam: mild splenomegaly and scleral icterus are noted. Labs: Hb 82 g/L, MCV 90 fL, reticulocyte count elevated, LDH elevated, indirect bilirubin elevated, haptoglobin undetectable. Peripheral smear shows spherocytes.
Q3. first-line treatment?
- Corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone)(Correct answer)
- biologic agents
- iron I.V
Explanation
Steroids are the initial treatment for autoimmune hemolytic anemia.
Sample Question 5
A 22-year-old man strikes his head in a motorcycle accident. He loses consciousness briefly, then regains it, followed by rapid deterioration. CT shows a biconvex, lens-shaped hematoma.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Intracerebral hemorrhage
- Epidural hematoma(Correct answer)
- Subarachnoid hemorrhage
- Subdural hematoma
- Ischemic stroke
Explanation
Lucid interval with lens-shaped hematoma is classic for epidural hematoma, usually due to middle meningeal artery rupture.
Loading plans…