MCCQE
Prepare for the Medical Council of Canada Qualifying Examination (MCCQE, formerly MCCQE Part I — still widely searched as MCCQE1) with topic-based practice questions and answers, timed and tutor-mode exams. Start your free 7-day trial.
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About the MCCQE exam
The Medical Council of Canada Qualifying Examination (MCCQE) — known until April 2026 as the Medical Council of Canada Qualifying Examination Part I (MCCQE Part I) — is a required step toward medical licensure in Canada, assessing whether a candidate has the clinical knowledge and decision-making ability expected of a new physician entering supervised practice. It's typically taken near the end of medical school or shortly after, and covers the full range of clinical presentations a generalist physician is expected to manage. TopQbank's MCQ practice questions are organized by topic and category so you can build an MCCQE1 study plan around specific weak areas or work through the full breadth of content under realistic timed conditions. Always confirm current exam structure, eligibility, and registration details directly with the Medical Council of Canada, since these are updated periodically.
Free MCCQE Sample Questions
Real MCCQE practice questions and answers with explanations — no sign-up required.
Sample Question 1
A 27-year-old woman presents with fever and severe pelvic pain. History includes multiple sexual partners. Family history non-contributory. Vitals: T 39.1°C, BP 90/56 mm Hg, HR 118 bpm. Exam shows cervical motion tenderness. Labs: WBC 18 ×10⁹/L.
What is the most appropriate management?
- IV broad-spectrum antibiotics(Correct answer)
- Oral antibiotics and discharge
- Observation
- Laparoscopy
- Analgesics only
Explanation
Severe PID with systemic signs requires inpatient IV antibiotics.
Sample Question 2
An 82-year-old man presents with 3 weeks of progressive confusion, gait instability, and headache after a minor fall that he barely remembers. He takes aspirin. CT demonstrates a large crescentic hypodense subdural collection with mass effect. His symptoms are worsening.
Which treatment is most appropriate?
- IV thrombolysis
- Lumbar puncture
- Observation only despite progressive symptoms and mass effect
- High-dose anticoagulation
- Burr-hole drainage of the symptomatic chronic subdural hematoma(Correct answer)
Explanation
Symptomatic chronic subdural hematoma with significant mass effect is generally treated surgically, commonly with burr-hole evacuation and drainage.
Sample Question 3
A 70-year-old woman with hypothyroidism presents with hypothermia, bradycardia, hypotension, and altered mental status.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Adrenal crisis
- Septic shock
- Hypoglycemia
- Thyroid storm
- Myxedema coma(Correct answer)
Explanation
Severe, life-threatening hypothyroidism with hypothermia, bradycardia, and altered mental status is myxedema coma.
Sample Question 4
A 54-year-old man with a large lumbar disc herniation develops rapidly worsening bilateral sciatica, saddle numbness, urinary retention, and reduced anal tone. Bladder scanning shows a large post-void residual. He has new weakness of ankle plantar flexion. The emergency physician suspects cauda equina syndrome.
Which management is most appropriate?
- Routine outpatient MRI within 6 months
- Bed rest and reassessment after one week
- Start gabapentin and discharge
- Perform epidural steroid injection before imaging
- Emergency MRI and urgent surgical decompression assessment(Correct answer)
Explanation
Cauda equina syndrome is a surgical emergency. Saddle anesthesia, bladder dysfunction, reduced anal tone, and bilateral neurologic deficits require emergency MRI and urgent spinal surgical assessment for decompression.
Sample Question 5
A 56-year-old woman is hospitalized with severe major depression. She has stopped eating and drinking adequately, moves and speaks very slowly, expresses fixed delusions that her internal organs have disappeared, and repeatedly says she deserves to die. Two adequate antidepressant trials have failed, and her medical condition is deteriorating because of poor intake. The team wants a treatment with a relatively rapid and robust response.
Which treatment is most appropriate?
- Stimulant monotherapy as definitive treatment
- Long-term benzodiazepine monotherapy
- Electroconvulsive therapy(Correct answer)
- Delay further treatment for several months
- Supportive psychotherapy alone
Explanation
ECT is particularly useful for severe depression with psychotic features, catatonia, severe suicidality, treatment resistance, or medical compromise when a rapid response is needed.
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